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Just a heads up - if you're amending because of a 1099-INT that came late, you might also want to check if you need to pay estimated tax penalties. Sometimes when you have income that wasn't withheld (like interest), you're supposed to make estimated payments throughout the year. The IRS has a "safe harbor" rule where you generally won't face penalties if your withholding and estimated payments total at least 90% of your current year tax or 100% of your prior year tax (110% if your AGI was over $150,000).

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I've never heard of this safe harbor rule before. Does this apply even for relatively small amounts like $900 in interest? That seems like overkill for the IRS to expect quarterly payments on such small amounts.

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Yes, technically the safe harbor rules apply regardless of the amount. However, in practice, for relatively small amounts like $900 in interest resulting in under $200 in additional tax, the penalty would be very minimal - we're talking maybe a few dollars at most. The IRS calculates the penalty based on how much you underpaid and for how long. Since the interest is usually earned throughout the year, the penalty isn't on the full amount for the full year. Many people with smaller amounts of interest income don't worry about making quarterly estimates because the potential penalty is so small, but technically you're supposed to cover your tax obligations as you earn income.

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Has anyone used the standard tax software (TurboTax, H&R Block, etc.) to file an amended return for something simple like a missed 1099-INT? I'm curious if that's easier than doing the paper form.

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I used TurboTax to amend my return last year when I forgot about a 1099-INT. It was pretty straightforward - I just logged back into my account, selected "amend return," and followed the prompts to add the missing info. The downside is they charge extra for amendments, I think it was like $50 when I did it.

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Thanks for sharing! That $50 fee is still less than what most tax preparers charge, so that might be worth it. Did TurboTax handle submitting the amendment electronically or did you still have to print and mail it?

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I think there's a distinction here that might be important - were you just mentally planning to buy these items, or did you create some kind of formal purchase requisition in your accounting system? If you actually created internal documentation showing approval and commitment to purchase, some accountants might argue that's enough to recognize the expense.

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QuantumQuest

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No formal purchase requisition, just noted in my accounting software as planned expenses and allocated the funds. Based on what everyone's saying, sounds like I definitely recorded these too early and should move them to 2025. Good catch on the distinction though!

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Yeah, that's what I thought. Without formal documentation creating an actual obligation, it's just a planned expense, not an incurred one. For future reference, if you want to legitimately recognize expenses in a particular tax year, you need to create that obligation before year-end. A simple purchase order or signed contract dated before December 31st would have made those valid 2024 expenses even if you didn't pay until 2025. This is a common strategy for businesses wanting to accelerate deductions.

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This might be a dumb question, but if I'm on cash basis accounting does any of this even matter? I just record everything when money actually changes hands and it seems way simpler.

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Omar Farouk

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For cash basis, this is all moot - you record when you pay, period. That's the beauty of cash accounting for small businesses. But OP specifically mentioned they're using accrual, which has all these timing rules we're discussing.

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Sergio Neal

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Former gambling affiliate here. What you're describing is actually pretty common with offshore gambling sites. In my experience, you want to treat this as two separate transactions: 1) Gambling winnings (which you've already reported) 2) Acquisition of ETH at the market value when you received it The $101 loss is probably from the ETH dropping in value between when you received it and when you sold it (or the current value if you still hold it). One thing to watch out for - make sure the gambling site didn't take a fee when converting to ETH. Some sites take 2-5% when processing crypto withdrawals, which would affect your cost basis.

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Thanks for this explanation! Yes, the site did take a small fee during the conversion to ETH. Should I be including that fee in my calculations somehow? Sorry if that's a dumb question, I'm still trying to wrap my head around all this.

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Sergio Neal

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That fee is important! It should be factored into your cost basis. For example, if you withdrew $1000 worth of winnings but only received $950 in ETH after the fee, your cost basis should be $950, not $1000. When you eventually sell that ETH, you'll calculate your gain/loss based on the $950 figure. The $50 fee isn't deductible separately - it's just part of the transaction cost of acquiring the ETH. This is likely contributing to why your software is showing a capital loss.

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Not financial advice but i had a similar problem when i was using bovada and withdrawing to btc. i just reported my gambling winnings like normal and then treated the crypto as if i bought it that day at whatever the price was when i received it. seems to match what smarter ppl than me are saying here lol

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Juan Moreno

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How did you figure out the exact price when you received it though? The price can change like every minute and im never sure what exact value to use.

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Vince Eh

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Don't forget that you also need to submit a Form 1096 along with your late 1099! 1096 is basically the transmittal form that goes with paper 1099s when you send them to the IRS. If you're e-filing you won't need it, but for paper filing it's required.

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Avery Davis

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Wait seriously? I had no idea about Form 1096! Is that something I can just download from the IRS website? And does it need to be mailed or can I submit it electronically somehow?

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Vince Eh

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Yes, Form 1096 is required when submitting paper 1099s to the IRS. It's essentially a cover sheet that summarizes all the 1099s you're submitting. You can download it from the IRS website, but it needs to be the official red-ink scannable version - a regular printout won't be accepted. For your situation, you might want to consider e-filing instead. If you e-file your 1099, you won't need the 1096 at all. There are several IRS-approved e-filing services that make the process pretty straightforward, and it's generally faster and eliminates the risk of mail delays. Plus, you get confirmation when the IRS receives your submission.

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Don't just file the late 1099 with the IRS - remember you also need to provide a copy to the contractor! I got hit with an extra penalty because I sent the late forms to the IRS but forgot to give copies to my contractors too.

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Does the contractor copy have the same deadline? Like, are you penalized separately for sending it late to the contractor versus sending it late to the IRS?

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Tax implications for selling two properties - Capital Gains exemption questions regarding Publication 523

Hey tax folks. Looking for some clarity on a capital gains situation that's causing me a lot of anxiety. My husband and I have owned our starter home since 2006 (purchased for $175k). In 2021, we bought a new place and converted our first home into a rental property. We're now planning to sell that starter home for about $390k, so looking at approximately $215k in capital gains. From what I've read, since we used it as our primary residence for more than 2 years within the 5-year window, we should qualify for the married couple exemption of up to $500k in capital gains. Here's where it gets complicated: My husband is listed as a co-owner on his father's house (purchased around 2002 for about $130k). His dad has been retired for over a decade and is claimed as a dependent by my husband's brother who lives with him. The father's house is now selling for roughly $530k. My husband won't receive ANY money from this sale - all proceeds will go to his father. What I'm really worried about is who's responsible for the capital gains tax on his father's house? Would his father/brother qualify for some exemption, and if so, how much? Most resources I find only mention the $250k single/$500k married couple exemptions, but I can't figure out how this works in a father/son co-ownership situation. I'm especially concerned about the "Look-back" Eligibility rules in Publication 523. My husband will have technically sold a house in the last 2 years (our rental), but his father hasn't. Could we end up owing capital gains tax on the father's house even though we won't see a dime from it?

Grace Lee

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One way to handle this that nobody has mentioned is using a Qualified Disclaimer. If your husband never intended to have an ownership interest and won't be receiving proceeds, he may be able to execute a disclaimer of interest BEFORE the sale closes. This is basically a legal statement refusing to accept the interest in the property. It needs to be done properly through an attorney, filed with the county recorder, and meet specific IRS requirements, but it could potentially remove your husband from the equation entirely before the sale happens. I did this when my grandparents put me on a deed without telling me, and it saved me from a huge tax headache when they later sold the property.

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This is really interesting! I've never heard of a Qualified Disclaimer before. Is this something that can be done even years after being added to a deed? My husband has been on his father's deed since 2002, so about 20 years now. Would it still be possible to do this so close to the sale?

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Grace Lee

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Unfortunately, a Qualified Disclaimer typically needs to be executed within 9 months of when the interest was created or when you turned 21 (whichever is later). Since your husband has been on the deed for around 20 years, this option probably won't work in your situation. There are still other approaches though. One possibility is having your father-in-law give your husband's share back to him as a gift before the sale (though this has gift tax implications). Another is to ensure proper documentation that your husband is acting as a "nominee" owner only. This would require specific language in the closing documents and proper reporting on tax returns.

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Mia Roberts

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Has anyone used TurboTax to handle capital gains reporting for a situation like this? I've got a somewhat similar scenario coming up and wondering if the software can handle the complexity or if I need to hire a professional.

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The Boss

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I used TurboTax Premier last year for a capital gains situation with multiple owners (sold my parents' house where I was on the deed). It handled the basic reporting fine, but I found it didn't ask enough detailed questions about ownership intent or primary residence status for each owner. I ended up having to manually override some entries and add explanatory statements. Unless your situation is very straightforward, I'd recommend at least consulting with a tax professional who specializes in real estate transactions before trying to DIY it.

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Mia Roberts

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Thanks for the feedback. That's pretty much what I was worried about. I think I'll use a tax pro this year since the stakes are high, then maybe try software again next year when I don't have such complicated issues.

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